5.2: Derivatives of Extended-Real Functions
( \newcommand{\kernel}{\mathrm{null}\,}\)
For a while (in §§2 and 3), we limit ourselves to extended-real functions. Below, f and g are real or extended real (f, g:E1→E∗). We assume, however, that they are not constantly infinite on any interval (a,b),a<b.
If f′(p)>0 at some p∈E1, then
x<p<y
implies
f(x)<f(p)<f(y)
for all x,y in a sufficiently small globe Gp(δ)=(p−δ,p+δ).
Similarly, if f′(p)<0, then x<p<y implies f(x)>f(p)>f(y) for x,y in some Gp(δ).
- Proof
-
If f′(p)>0, the "0" case in Definition 1 of §1, is excluded, so
f′(p)=limx→pΔfΔx>0.
Hence we must also have Δf/Δx>0 for x in some Gp(δ).
It follows that Δf and Δx have the same sign in Gp(δ); i.e.,
f(x)−f(p)>0 if x>p and f(x)−f(p)<0 if x<p.
(This implies f(p)≠±∞. Why? Hence
x<p<y⟹f(x)<f(p)<f(y),
as claimed; similarly in case f′(p)<0.◻
If f(p) is the maximum or minimum value of f(x) for x in some Gp(δ), then f′(p)=0; i.e., f has a zero derivative, or none at all, at p.
For, by Lemma 1, f′(p)≠0 excludes a maximum or minimum at p. (Why?)
Note 1. Thus f′(p)=0 is a necessary condition for a local maximum or minimum at p. It is insufficient, however. For example, if f(x)=x3,f has no maxima or minima at all, yet f′(0)=0. For sufficient conditions, see §6.
Figure 22 illustrates these facts at the points p2,p3,…,p11. Note that in Figure 22, the isolated points P,Q,R belong to the graph.
Geometrically, f′(p)=0 means that the tangent at p is horizontal, or that a two-sided tangent does not exist at p.
Let f:E1→E∗ be relatively continuous on an interval [a,b], with f′≠0 on (a,b). Then f is strictly monotone on [a,b], and f′ is signconstant there (possibly 0 at a and b), with f′≥0 if f↑, and f′≤0 if f↓.
- Proof
-
By Theorem 2 of Chapter 4, §8, f attains a least value m, and a largest value M, at some points of [a,b]. However, neither can occur at an interior point p∈(a,b), for, by Corollary 1, this would imply f′(p)=0, contrary to our assumption.
Thus M=f(a) or M=f(b); for the moment we assume M=f(b) and m=f(a). We must have m<M, for m=M would make f constant on [a,b], implying f′=0. Thus m=f(a)<f(b)=M.
Now let a≤x<y≤b. Applying the previous argument to each of the intervals [a,x],[a,y],[x,y], and [x,b] (now using that m=f(a)<f(b)=M), we find that
f(a)≤f(x)<f(y)≤f(b). (Why?)
Thus a≤x<y≤b implies f(x)<f(y); i.e., f increases on [a,b]. Hence f′ cannot be negative at any p∈[a,b], for, otherwise, by Lemma 1, f would decrease at p. Thus f′≥0 on [a,b].
In the case M=f(a)>f(b)=m, we would obtain f′≤0. ◻
Caution: The function f may increase or decrease at p even if f′(p)=0.
See Note 1.
If : E1→E∗ is relatively continuous on [a,b] and if f(a)=f(b), then f′(p)=0 for at least one interior point p∈(a,b).
For, if f′≠0 on all of (a,b), then by Theorem 1, f would be strictly monotone on [a,b], so the equality f(a)=f(b) would be impossible.
Figure 22 illustrates this on the intervals [p2,p4] and [p4,p6], with f′(p3)= f′(p5)=0. A discontinuity at 0 causes an apparent failure on [0,p2].
Note 2. Theorem 1 and Corollary 2 hold even if f(a) and f(b) are infinite, if continuity is interpreted in the sense of the metric ρ′ of Problem 5 in Chapter 3, §11. (Weierstrass' Theorem 2 of Chapter 4, §8 applies to (E∗,ρ′), with the same proof.)
Let the functions f,g:E1→E∗ be relatively continuous and finite on [a,b] and have derivatives on (a,b), with f′ and g′ never both infinite at the same point p∈(a,b). Then
g′(q)[f(b)−f(a)]=f′(q)[g(b)−g(a)] for at least one q∈(a,b).
- Proof
-
Let A=f(b)−f(a) and B=g(b)−g(a). We must show that Ag′(q)=Bf′(q) for some q∈(a,b). For this purpose, consider the function h=Ag−Bf. It is relatively continuous and finite on [a,b], as are g and f. Also,
h(a)=f(b)g(a)−g(b)f(a)=h(b). (Verify!)
Thus by Corollary 2, h′(q)=0 for some q∈(a,b). Here, by Theorem 4 of §1, h′=(Ag−Bf)′=Ag′−Bf′. (This is legitimate, for, by assumption, f′ and g′ never both become infinite, so no indeterminate limits occur.) Thus h′(q)=Ag′(q)−Bf′(q)=0, and (1) follows. ◻
If f:E1→E1 is relatively continuous on [a,b] with a derivative on (a,b), then
f(b)−f(a)=f′(q)(b−a) for at least one q∈(a,b).
- Proof
-
Take g(x)=x in Theorem 2, so g′=1 on E1.◻
Note 3. Geometrically,
f(b)−f(a)b−a
is the slope of the secant through (a,f(a)) and (b,f(b)), and f′(q) is the slope of the tangent line at q. Thus Corollary 3 states that the secant is parallel to the tangent at some intermediate point q; see Figure 23. Theorem 2 states the same for curves given parametrically: x=f(t),y=g(t).
Let f be as in Corollary 3. Then
(i) f is constant on [a,b] iff f′=0 on (a,b);
(ii) f↑ on [a,b] iff f′≥0 on (a,b); and
(iii) f↓ on [a,b] iff f′≤0 on (a,b).
- Proof
-
Let f′=0 on (a,b). If a≤x≤y≤b, apply Corollary 3 to the interval [x,y] to obtain
f(y)−f(x)=f′(q)(y−x) for some q∈(a,b) and f′(q)=0.
Thus f(y)−f(x)=0 for x,y∈[a,b], so f is constant.
The rest is left to the reader. ◻
Let f:E1→E1 be relatively continuous and strictly monotone on an interval I⊆E1. Let f′(p)≠0 at some interior point p∈I. Then the inverse function g=f−1 (with f restricted to I) has a derivative at q=f(p), and
g′(q)=1f′(p).
(If f′(p)=±∞, then g′(q)=0.)
- Proof
-
By Theorem 3 of Chapter 4, §9, g=f−1 is strictly monotone and relatively continuous on f[I], itself an interval. If p is interior to I, then q=f(p) is interior to f[I]. (Why?)
Now if y∈f[I], we set
Δg=g(y)−g(q),Δy=y−q,x=f−1(y)=g(y), and f(x)=y
and obtain
ΔgΔy=g(y)−g(q)y−q=x−pf(x)−f(p)=ΔxΔf for x≠p.
Now if y→q, the continuity of g at q yields g(y)→g(q); i.e., x→p. Also, x≠p iff y≠q, for f and g are one-to-one functions. Thus we may substitute y=f(x) or x=g(y) to get
g′(q)=limy→qΔgΔy=limx→pΔxΔf=1limx→p(Δf/Δx)=1f′(p),
where we use the convention 1∞=0 if f′(p)=∞.◻
(A) Let
f(x)=loga|x| with f(0)=0.
Let p>0. Then (∀x>0)
Δf=f(x)−f(p)=logax−logap=loga(x/p)=logap+(x−p)p=loga(1+Δxp).
Thus
ΔfΔx=loga(1+Δxp)1/Δx.
Now let z=Δx/p. (Why is this substitution admissible?) Then using the formula
limz→0(1+z)1/z=e (see Chapter 4, §2, Example (C))
and the continuity of the log and power functions, we obtain
f′(p)=limx→pΔfΔx=limz→0loga[(1+z)1/z]1/p=logae1/p=1plogae.
The same formula results also if p<0, i.e., |p|=−p. At p=0,f has one-sided derivatives (±∞) only (verify!), so f′(0)=0 by Definition 1 in §1.
(B) The inverse of the log a function is the exponential g:E1→E1, with
g(y)=ay(a>0,a≠1).
By Theorem 3, we have
(∀q∈E1)g′(q)=1f′(p),p=g(q)=aq.
Thus
g′(q)=11plogae=plogae=aqlogae.
Symbolically,
(loga|x|)′=1xlogae(x≠0);(ax)′=axlogae=axlna.
In particular, if a=e, we have logea=1 and logax=lnx; hence
(ln|x|)′=1x(x≠0) and (ex)′=ex(x∈E1).
(C) The power function g:(0,+∞)→E1 is given by
g(x)=xa=exp(a⋅lnx) for x>0 and fixed a∈E1.
By the chain rule (§1, Theorem 3), we obtain
g′(x)=exp(a⋅lnx)⋅ax=xa⋅ax=a⋅xa−1.
Thus we have the symbolic formula
(xa)′=a⋅xa−1 for x>0 and fixed a∈E1.
If f:E1→E∗ is relatively continuous and has a derivative on an interval I, then f′ has the Darboux property (Chapter 4, §9 ) on I.
- Proof
-
Let p,q∈I and f′(p)<c<f′(q). Put g(x)=f(x)−cx. Assume g′≠0 on (p,q) and find a contradiction to Theorem 1. Details are left to the reader. ◻