11.3: Analytic functions are Conformal
( \newcommand{\kernel}{\mathrm{null}\,}\)
If f is analytic on the region A and f′(z0)≠0, then f is conformal at z0. Furthermore, the map f multiplies tangent vectors at z0 by f′(z0).
- Proof
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The proof is a quick computation. Suppose z=γ(t) is curve through z0 with γ(t0)=z0. The curve γ(t) is transformed by f to the curve w=f(γ(t)). By the chain rule we have
df(γ(t))dt|t0=f′(γ(t0))γ′(t0)=f′(z0)γ′(t0).
The theorem now follows from Theorem 11.3.1.
Suppose c=aeiϕ and consider the map f(z)=cz. Geometrically, this map rotates every point by ϕ and scales it by a. Therefore, it must have the same effect on all tangent vectors to curves. Indeed, f is analytic and f′(z)=c is constant.
Let f(z)=z2. So f′(z)=2z. Thus the map f has a different affect on tangent vectors at different points z1 and z2.
Suppose f(z) is analytic at z=0. The linear approximation (first two terms of the Taylor series) is
f(z)≈f(0)+f′(0)z.
If γ(t) is a curve with γ(t0)=0 then, near t0,
f(γ(t))≈f(0)+f′(0)γ(t).
That is, near 0, f looks like our basic example plus a shift by f(0).
The map f(z)=¯z has lots of nice geometric properties, but it is not conformal. It preserves the length of tangent vectors and the angle between tangent vectors. The reason it isn’t conformal is that is does not rotate tangent vectors. Instead, it reflects them across the x-axis.
In other words, it reverses the orientation of a pair of vectors. Our definition of conformal maps requires that it preserves orientation.