10.5: Inverses
( \newcommand{\kernel}{\mathrm{null}\,}\)
Suppose f:A→B is a function. By definition, f associates an element of B to each element of A. Sometimes we want to reverse this process: given an element b∈B, can we determine an element a∈A such that f(a)=b? We'll begin to answer this question by first finding all possible “reverse results” from elements in subsets of B.
the set of all domain elements a∈A for function f:A→B for which the corresponding output element f(a) lies in the subset C of the codomain
the inverse image of the subset C⊆B under the function f:A→B, so that
f−1(C)={a∈A|f(a)∈C}

As in the figure above, f−1(C) collects together all those elements of A whose images under f land inside C.
Consider f:R→R, f(x)=sinx.
Then
f−1({−1,0,1})={mπ2|m∈Z}
because
sin(mπ2)
will equal 0 when m is even and will equal 1 or −1 when m is odd, and no other input values will produce outputs of 0, 1, or −1.
However,
f−1({y∈R→y>1})=∅
because there are no input values for sine that will produce an output value greater than 1.
Now let's return to the question of trying to reverse an input-output relationship f(a)=b: the set f−1\bbrac{b} collects together all possible candidates for the inverse image of b.
the inverse image f−1({b}), which consists of all domain elements a∈A for which f(a)=b
simplified notation to mean the inverse image of element b
This gives us a way to associate to an element b∈B a set f−1(b) of elements of A.
When does this association b↦f−1(b) give us a function f−1:B→A?
There are two possible ways that this will fail to give us a function.
- Suppose there is an element b∈B such that the set f−1(b) contains (at least) two distinct elements a1,a2. Then in general there is no way to choose between f−1(b)=a1 and f−1(b)=a2. Therefore, if f is not injective, the function f−1:B→A is not well-defined.
- Suppose there is an element b∈B such that f−1(b)=∅. Then there is no element of A which we can assign to f−1(b). Therefore, if f is not surjective, the function f−1:B→A is undefined on some elements of B.
So it seems we will need a function to be bijective in order to be able to reverse the input-output rule to obtain an inverse function.
for a bijective function f, the inverse function associates to each codomain element of f the corresponding unique domain element that produces it through f
the inverse function f−1:B→A for bijective function f:A→B, so that for b∈B we have f−1(b) defined to be the unique element a∈A such that f(a)=b
The function f:R→R, f(x)=x3, is bijective and has inverse f−1(x)=x13.
Returning again to the bijection φ:Σ→B encountered in Example 10.2.4 and Example 10.2.6, where
Σ={a,b,…,z},B={1,2,…,26},
the inverse function φ−1:B→Σ associates to each number 1≤b≤26 the corresponding letter at that position of the alphabet. For example, φ−1(11)=k.
The function g:R→R, g(x)=x2, does not have an inverse since it is not bijective. However, the function h:R≥0:R≥0, h(x)=x2, so that h=g|R≥0 but with codomain also restricted down to the image of g, has inverse h−1(x)=√x.
If f is bijective, then so is f−1, and f−1 is the unique function B→A such that both
f−1∘f=idA,f∘f−1=idB.
Prove that if f is bijective then so is f−1, and (f−1)−1=f.